1) Ch. 4, v. 24: "Laavode ulmasso" To serve and to bear a load "L'masso" is not mentioned earlier by the bnei K'hos, only "laavode."
2) Ch. 5, v. 6: "V'oshmoh" And it has sinned "The term "oshom" indicates an intentional sin. However, the beginning of the verse says "mikol chatos," indicative of an unintentional sin.
3) Ch. 5, v. 8: "Hamushov laShem" That which is returned to Hashem Why is the returning of the stolen item called "returned to Hashem?"
4) Ch. 5, v. 21: "Es y'reicheich no'fe'les v'es bitnach tzovoh" Your thigh will fall and your belly will swell Rashi comments that when the Kohein administers the threatening curse, he mentions the reaction of the thigh before that of the belly because if she sinned she first involved her thigh. In verse 27, which relates the results, the belly is mentioned first. Rashi there explains that since the bitter waters first enter her belly, they react first. Why didn't Rashi place this comment earlier, in verse 22, where it says, "Latzbos betten v'lanpil yo'reich?"
5) Ch. 6, v. 27: "Vaani avoracheim" And I will bless them The antecedent of "them" is either the bnei Yisroel or the Kohanim themselves. In the gemara Chulin 49a we find that Rabbi Akiva cites as the source for the Kohanim themselves receiving blessing from the verse in Breishis 12:3, "Vaavorcho m'vorachecho." Rabbi Yishmo'eil the Kohein cites these words of our verse, saying that they refer to the Kohanim. They receive their blessing from Hashem for blessing the bnei Yisroel. Since Rabbi Akiva's proof is from much earlier in the Torah, why does Rabbi Yishmo'eil haKohein prefer to use our verse as the source?