1) Ch. 1, v. 15: "Va'yomer melech Mitzrayim" And the king of Egypt said Why until now were the harsh edicts expressed in the plural form, "va'yosimu, v'chaasher y'anu, va'yaavidu, va'y'mor'ru," and now in the singular?
2) Ch. 1, v. 22: "Va'y'tzav Paroh l'chol amo leimore KOL ha'bein hayilod ha'y'oroh tashlichuhu" And Paroh commanded even regarding his own nation that every son who is born into the river you shall throw him How many bnei Yisroel were actually thrown into the river?
3) Ch. 2, v. 1: "Va'yeilech ish" And a man went Why doesn't the verse simply say "Va'yikach ish mi'beis Levi"?
4) Ch. 2, v. 2: "Vatitz'p'neihu" And she hid him In parshas v'Zose Habrochoh we have the words "usfu'nei t'mu'nei chole" (Dvorim 33:19). Rashi explains this to mean "and it is covered that which is hidden in the sand." Two verses later we have "chelkas m'chokeik sofun." Rashi explains this to mean the same, "the burial plot of the statute giver (Moshe) is covered and hidden." We thus find three words, two of which are phonetically the same, and the third, very similar in sound, "sofun" with the letter Sin, "sofun" with the letter Samach, and Tzofun, with the letter Tzadi (The Syrian pronunciation of a Tzadi is virtually the same as a Sin or Samach in Ashkenazic pronunciation). What are the nuances of difference among these three words?
5) Ch. 4, v. 8: "V'he'eminu l'kole ho'ose ho'acharone" And they will believe the calling of the last sign The next verse goes on to offer a third sign if the first two are not sufficiently convincing. If so, why does our verse call the penultimate sign "ho'acharone?"